How To Use Ablaut In A Sentence
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So we have an ablauting -es -os suffix which would betray an unaccented schwa *a.
Here's what happened to me
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It is the relationship between phonemic pitch and the nature of ablaut in standard Lithuanian which makes this clear.
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the vocalic ablaut
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Yet, for all the careful reasoning and evidence behind this clever solution, Jasanoff's scheme seems to give us a curious overabundance of durative 'Narten stems' ie. verbs showing *ē/*e ablaut rather than *e/*∅.
Where do Narten presents come from?
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It seems we have a "standard" PIE *gʰebʰ-, with the regular e/o-ablaut, and non-ablauting "dialectal" variants *gʰab- and *kap-.
PIE *kap- and *ghabh-
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kessar is one of the few clearly ablauting nouns in Hittite.
I tripped over Pre-IE the other day
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You can't even distinguish between the preterite and participle Germanic ablauts of English.
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kessar is one of the few clearly ablauting nouns in Hittite.
I tripped over Pre-IE the other day
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If this ablaut preceded Centralization, we would find verb stems alternating between labialized (eg. *kʷ) and non-labialized consonants (eg. *k).
Updating my Pre-IE pdf (already!)
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If the voiced variant contains the original ablauting Narten present, then would this mean that *qep- trad. *kap- is not the original root form and merely a dialectal variant of an original form *ɢēb-?
PIE *kap- and *ghabh-
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It's both the parenthetic *d and the unexplained ablaut that really bugs me... a lot.
Something that bugs me about Indo-European's higher decads
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So we have an ablauting -es -os suffix which would betray an unaccented schwa *a.
Here's what happened to me
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The Proto-Indo-European phonetics was not stable at all: ablauts (vowel interchanges), assimilations, many different consonant processes at the end of the word.
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Furthermore, between a choice of ablauting verbs and plain verbs, you'd think that the natural tendency would be for ablauting verbs to be in the minority in favour of regular verbs!
The Great Pre-IE Centralization
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Obviously this is difficult to justify if you don't see it back in other ablauting paradigms, but even in Hittite these have already become incredibly rare.
I tripped over Pre-IE the other day
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When ablaut is a regular feature of a language's grammar, it is often called vowel gradation.
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It may be that this putative prosodic breathy voice played a (limited) morphological role analogous to ablaut or n-infixation, explaining to some extent the apparent voiceless/voiced ("aspirated") root doublets.
PIE "look-alike stems" - Evidence of something or a red herring?
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Since the overwhelming majority of verbs contain ablauting *e/*o, it implies that there was an overabundance of verbs in *i and *u beforehand, and that makes no sense.
The Great Pre-IE Centralization
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Sweepingly, postmeridian can recently pomatomus by an premedical foolhardy of the imperceptibility of ablaut bedrock and uncooked mellon.
Rational Review
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Rather, my instinct is telling me that the "ablautless" forms are coloured by uvulars, hence *-a-, and that ablauting forms stem from a lengthened Narten present, *ɢēb- or *gʰēbʰ- in traditional notation, since it's already been established by other IEists that long vowels are not affected by laryngeal colouring and thus, by extension, they wouldn't be affected by uvular colouring.
PIE *kap- and *ghabh-
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There are various categories of this: rhyming, exact and ablaut (vowel substitution).
